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Page 1 of 11

1. In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Manage and Settings

Logs and Monitor

Security Policies

Gateways and Servers

2. Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

remote access clients.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

users and user groups.

All of the above.

3. Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

IPS blade

IPSEC VPN Blade

Identity Awareness Blade

Firewall Blade

4. In order for changes made to policy to be enforced by a Security Gateway, what action must an administrator perform?

Publish changes

Save changes

Install policy

Install database

5. With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

The complete communication is sent for inspection.

The IP address of the source machine.

The end user credentials.

The host portion of the UR

6. Which Check Point software blade prevents malicious files from entering a network using virus signatures and anomaly-based protections from ThreatCloud?

Firewall

Application Control

Anti-spam and Email Security

Anti-Virus

7. What type of NAT is a one-to-one relationship where each host is translated to a unique address?

Source

Static

Hide

Destination

8. Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

9. Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Application Control

Threat Emulation

Logging and Status

Monitoring

10. Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Page 2 of 11

11. Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Password

Certificate

MD5

Pre-shared secret

12. Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

ThreatWiki

Whitelist Files

AppWiki

IPS Protections

13. What is the main objective when using Application Control?

To filter out specific content.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

To see what users are doing.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

14. Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

15. Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Incoming

Internal

External

Outgoing

16. Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic.

Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Slow Path

Medium Path

Fast Path

Accelerated Path

17. John is using Management HA.

Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

secondary Smartcenter

active Smartcenter

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

primary Smartcenter

18. Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Security Gateway

Management container

Management server

Security Gateway container

19. Which software blade enables Access Control policies to accept, drop, or limit web site access based on user, group, and/or machine?

Application Control

Data Awareness

Identity Awareness

Threat Emulation

20. What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Page 3 of 11

21. Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Log server; Security Gateway

Log server; security management server

Security management server; Security Gateway

Security Gateways; log server

22. What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Endpoint Security Client

Full Agent

Light Agent

System Agent

23. Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Pencil

Padlock

Book

Eyeglasses

24. Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

The Gaia operating system only.

25. Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Logs & Monitoring

Smart Event

Gateways & Severs Tab

SmartView Monitor

26. Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways

Users can share identities with other users

Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways

Administrators can share identifies with other administrators

27. When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

28. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

CPM

HTTPS

FWD

CPD

29. What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?

SmartUpdate installation

DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic

Cloud based installation

30. Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

Page 4 of 11

31. What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

32. What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Verification tool

Verification licensing

Automatic licensing

Automatic licensing and Verification tool

33. What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

ifconfig -a

show interfaces

show interfaces detail

show configuration interface

34. You are going to perform a major upgrade.

Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

backup

logswitch

Database Revision

snapshot

35. In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

"Inspect", "Bypass"

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

"Detect", "Bypass"

36. Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

admin

superuser

monitor

altuser

37. When should you generate new licenses?

Before installing contract files.

After a device upgrade.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

Only when the license is upgraded.

38. Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Common Name

Country

User container

Organizational Unit

39. R80.10 management server can manage gateways with which versions installed?

Versions R77 and higher

Versions R76 and higher

Versions R75.20 and higher

Version R75 and higher

40. You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.

How can you fix this?

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

Page 5 of 11

41. What is a role of Publishing?

The Publish operation sends the modifications made via SmartConsole in the private session and makes them public

The Security Management Server installs the updated policy and the entire database on Security Gateways

The Security Management Server installs the updated session and the entire Rule Base on Security Gateways

Modifies network objects, such as servers, users, services, or IPS profiles, but not the Rule Base

42. To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

43. What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Use Office Mode

Use identity agents

Share user identities between gateways

Use captive portal

44. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Slow path

Firewall path

Medium path

Accelerated path

45. Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Partial log

Log

Network log

Full log

46. After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

47. How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

One

Three

Two

Infinite

48. What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

49. Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Quick Mode Complete

Aggressive Mode Complete

Main Mode Complete

IKE Mode Complete

50. After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

Page 6 of 11

51. How do logs change when the "Accounting" tracking option is enabled on a traffic rule?

Involved traffic logs will be forwarded to a log server.

Provides log details view email to the Administrator.

Involved traffic logs are updated every 10 minutes to show how much data has passed on the connection.

Provides additional information to the connected user.

52. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

53. Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU.

After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

54. If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

55. When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

56. What are the types of Software Containers?

Smart Console, Security Management, and Security Gateway

Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security

Security Management, Log & Monitoring, and Security Policy

Security Management, Standalone, and Security Gateway

57. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

58. Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitor displays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.

Down

No Response

Inactive

Failed

59. Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

There is Load Sharing solution set up

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

There is High Availability solution set up

60. John is the administrator of a R80 Security Management server managing r R77.30 Check Point Security Gateway. John is currently updating the network objects and amending the rules using SmartConsole.

To make John’s changes available to other administrators, and to save the database before installing a policy, what must John do?

Logout of the session

File > Save

Install database

Publish the session

Page 7 of 11

61. When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

62. Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

cpconfig

Management Command Line

SmartConsole

SmartUpdate

63. Which of the following is NOT a valid configuration screen of an Access Role Object?

Users

Networks

Time

Machines

64. Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Connection Cache

State Cache

State Table

Network Table

65. When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Log, Alert, None

Log, Allow Packets, Email

Drop Packet, Alert, None

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

66. What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

67. What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Monitoring the status of processes

Sending and receiving logs

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

Generating and modifying certificates

68. Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

Perpetual and Trial

Evaluation and Subscription

Subscription and Perpetual

69. Check Point licenses come in two forms.

What are those forms?

Central and Local.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

On-premise and Public Cloud.

Security Gateway and Security Management.

70. Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

AdminRole, and MonitorRole

ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role

AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role

AdminRole

Page 8 of 11

71. When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

72. What is the purpose of a Stealth Rule?

A rule used to hide a server's IP address from the outside world.

A rule that allows administrators to access SmartDashboard from any device.

To drop any traffic destined for the firewall that is not otherwise explicitly allowed.

A rule at the end of your policy to drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

73. Which is a main component of the Check Point security management architecture?

Identity Collector

Endpoint VPN client

SmartConsole

Proxy Server

74. Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

fwaccel stat

fwaccel stats

fw ctl templates Cd

75. The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances.

How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

76. The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh.

How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

77. Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

the user connects and authenticates

office mode is initiated

the user requests a connection

the user connects

78. Which of the following cannot be configured in an Access Role Object?

Networks

Users

Time

Machines

79. Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

User Center

Package repository

Download Center Web site

License and Contract repository

80. Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Gateway and Servers

Logs and Monitor

Manage Seeting

Security Policies

Page 9 of 11

81. Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

Quicker than Full sync

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

82. You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot.

What command can be used?

show unsaved

show save-state

show configuration diff

show config-state

83. Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted.

What are those user accounts?

Admin and Default

Expert and Clish

Control and Monitor

Admin and Monitor

84. Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Data Loss Prevention

Antivirus

Application Control

NAT

85. Which command shows the installed licenses?

cplic print

print cplic

fwlic print

show licenses

86. Fill in the blanks: Default port numbers for an LDAP server is ______ for standard connections and _______ SSL connections.

675, 389

389, 636

636, 290

290, 675

87. You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference.

What command should you use?

write mem <filename>

show config -f <filename>

save config -o <filename>

save configuration <filename>

88. Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

89. In SmartEvent, a correlation unit (CU) is used to do what?

Collect security gateway logs, Index the logs and then compress the logs.

Receive firewall and other software blade logs in a region and forward them to the primary log server.

Analyze log entries and identify events.

Send SAM block rules to the firewalls during a DOS attack.

90. What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Automatic Static NAT

Manual Hide NAT

Automatic Hide NAT

Manual Static NAT

Page 10 of 11

91. What command from the CLI would be used to view current licensing?

license view

fw ctl tab -t license -s

show license -s

cplic print

92. What command would show the API server status?

cpm status

api restart

api status

show api status

93. What is true about the IPS-Blade?

in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

94. Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

95. Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Static; source

Simple; source

Hide; destination

Hide; source

96. Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Client machine IP address.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

Log server IP address.

Gateway proxy IP address.

97. When a Security Gateway sends its logs to an IP address other than its own, which deployment option is installed?

Distributed

Standalone

Bridge Mode

Targeted

98. Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Cloud/data Center

perimeter

Sandbox

Guest Network

99. The SIC Status “Unknown” means

There is connection between the gateway and Security Management Server but it is not trusted.

The secure communication is established.

There is no connection between the gateway and Security Management Server.

The Security Management Server can contact the gateway, but cannot establish SI

100. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Page 11 of 11

101. There are four policy types available for each policy package.

What are those policy types?

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NA

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

102. In Unified SmartConsole Gateways and Servers tab you can perform the following functions EXCEPT ________.

Upgrade the software version

Open WebUI

Open SSH

Open service request with Check Point Technical Support

103. What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Application Control, DLP

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, Application Layer Firewall.

ACL, SandBlast, MPT

IPS, Mobile Threat Protection

104. Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Formal; corporate

Local; formal

Local; central

Central; local

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