[Feb,14 2026] Pass the 220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 Exam – Free Practice Questions to Test Your Readiness

The CompTIA 220-1202 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (Core 2) is one of the two required exams to earn the globally recognized CompTIA A+ credential. While Core 1 (220-1201) focuses on hardware and networking fundamentals, Core 2 dives deeper into operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures — the real-world skills every IT support professional must master.

If you are planning to start or advance your career in IT support, help desk, or technical operations, passing 220-1202 is a critical milestone. This exam validates your ability to manage Windows environments, implement security best practices, troubleshoot software issues, and support users professionally.

Free 220-1202 Practice Questions – Test Yourself Now

Here are sample questions to help you evaluate your readiness:

1.A technician is attempting to join a workstation to a domain but is receiving an error message stating the domain cannot be found. However, the technician is able to ping the server and access the internet.

Given the following information:

IP Address – 192.168.1.210

Subnet Mask – 255.255.255.0

Gateway – 192.168.1.1

DNS1 – 8.8.8.8

DNS2 – 1.1.1.1

Server – 192.168.1.10

Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Change the DNS settings.

B. Assign a static IP address.

C. Configure a subnet mask.

D. Update the default gateway.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The issue described—“domain cannot be found” despite the ability to ping the server and access the internet—indicates a DNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is currently using public DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1) which cannot resolve internal domain names, such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs to change the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is the domain controller itself (likely 192.168.1.10 in this case). Here’s the breakdown of the incorrect options:

B. Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and reach the network and internet.

C. Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C /24).

D. Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective

Reference: Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations, including proper DNS settings in domain environments.

2.A network technician notices that most of the company’s network switches are now end-of-life and need to be upgraded.

Which of the following should the technician do first?

A. Implement the change

B. Approve the change

C. Propose the change

D. Schedule the change

Answer: C

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is to formally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps: Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with documentation and support systems information management. Study Guide Section: Change Management Process

3.MFA for a custom web application on a user’s smartphone is no longer working. The last time the user remembered it working was before taking a vacation to another country.

Which of the following should the technician do first?

A. Verify the date and time settings

B. Apply mobile OS patches

C. Uninstall and reinstall the application

D. Escalate to the website developer

Answer: A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract: Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) apps, especially time-based one-time password (TOTP) apps (e.g., Google Authenticator, Authy), rely on accurate time synchronization between the device and the authentication server. If the user recently traveled internationally, the device may have incorrect date/time settings due to time zone changes or failed synchronization, leading to MFA failure.

The most logical and non-intrusive first step is to verify and correct the date and time settings. This aligns with basic troubleshooting principles—start with the simplest and most likely cause before taking more drastic action.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, apply cybersecurity best practices to secure a workstation.

Study Guide Section: Authentication technologies and MFA troubleshooting

4.Which of the following is found in an MSDS sheet for a battery backup?

A. Installation instructions

B. Emergency procedures

C. Configuration steps

D. Voltage specifications

Answer: B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid—not installation or configuration instructions.

For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.

5.The screen of a previously working computer repeatedly displays an OS Not Found error message when the computer is started. Only a USB drive, a keyboard, and a mouse are plugged into the computer.

Which of the following should a technician do first?

A. Run data recovery tools on the disk

B. Partition the disk using the GPT format

C. Check boot options

D. Switch from UEFI to BIOS

Answer: C

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An “OS Not Found” error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn’t contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It’s possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.

A. Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.

B. Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data—this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.

D. Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.7: Troubleshoot common operating system problems. Study Guide Section: Boot process and boot order configuration.

6.A security administrator teaches all of an organization’s staff members to use BitLocker To Go.

Which of the following best describes the reason for this training?

A. To ensure that all removable media is password protected in case of loss or theft

B. To enable Secure Boot and a BIOS-level password to prevent configuration changes

C. To enforce VPN connectivity to be encrypted by hardware modules

D. To configure all laptops to use the TPM as an encryption factor for hard drives

Answer: A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.

A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.

B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.

D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast common security measures and tools. Study Guide Section: Encryption technologies (BitLocker, BitLocker To Go)

7.Which of the following is used to detect and record access to restricted areas?

A. Bollards

B. Video surveillance

C. Badge readers

D. Fence

Answer: C

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Badge readers are electronic access control systems that require authorized users to scan a badge (e.g., RFID or magnetic strip cards) to gain access to restricted physical locations. These systems typically log all access attempts—successful or denied—providing both detection and recording of access events.

A. Bollards are physical barriers to prevent vehicle access.

B. Video surveillance can record access visually but does not track identity unless integrated with access control systems.

D. A fence restricts access but doesn’t detect or record who entered.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast physical security measures.

Study Guide Section: Physical access controls (e.g., badge readers, mantraps)

8.An administrator received an email stating that the OS they are currently supporting will no longer be issued security updates and patches.

Which of the following is most likely the reason the administrator received this message?

A. Support from the computer’s manufacturer is expiring

B. The OS will be considered end of life

C. The built-in security software is being removed from the next OS version

D. A new version of the OS will be released soon

Answer: B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Operating systems periodically reach a status known as “end of life” (EOL), at which point the developer (e.g., Microsoft, Apple) ceases to provide security updates, patches, or technical support. When this happens, the OS becomes vulnerable and non-compliant with security best practices, which is why organizations typically receive advance notifications from vendors or support teams.

A. Manufacturer support expiration only applies to hardware, not OS patching.

C. Security software may be upgraded or removed, but that does not affect patching the OS itself.

D. The release of a new version doesn’t automatically stop updates for the current version.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system features and tools.

Study Guide Section: OS lifecycle management and vendor support phases (e.g., EOL)

9.Which of the following is the best way to distribute custom images to 800 devices that include four device vendor classes with two types of user groups?

A. Use xcopy to clone the hard drives from one to another

B. Use robocopy to move the files to each device

C. Use a local image deployment tool for each device

D. Use a network-based remote installation tool

Answer: D

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In enterprise environments, network-based deployment solutions (such as Windows Deployment Services or SCCM) allow administrators to push images across the network to hundreds of devices efficiently. These tools support hardware-specific drivers (for different vendor classes) and can accommodate user-group configurations using task sequences or answer files.

A and B (xcopy and robocopy) are file-level tools and not designed for full OS image deployment.

C. Using local tools per device is inefficient for large-scale rollouts (800 devices).

D. Network-based deployment is the industry standard for this scale.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.

Study Guide Section: Deployment methods (including PXE boot, image deployment)

10.Which of the following types of social engineering attacks sends an unsolicited text message to a user’s mobile device?

A. Impersonation

B. Vishing

C. Spear phishing

D. Smishing

Answer: D

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Smishing (SMS phishing) is a type of social engineering attack where attackers send fraudulent text messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information or downloading malware. These messages often impersonate banks, delivery services, or official institutions to lure the victim into clicking malicious links.

A. Impersonation is an in-person or voice-based tactic.

B. Vishing refers to voice phishing over phone calls.

C. Spear phishing is a targeted email-based phishing method.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast social engineering techniques.

Study Guide Section: Smishing as a type of phishing via SMS or mobile messaging.

11.A user reports some single sign-on errors to a help desk technician. Currently, the user is able to sign in to the company’s application portal but cannot access a specific SaaS-based tool.

Which of the following would the technician most likely suggest as a next step?

A. Reenroll the user’s mobile device to be used as an MFA token

B. Use a private browsing window to avoid local session conflicts

C. Bypass single sign-on by directly authenticating to the application

D. Reset the device being used to factory defaults

Answer: B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SSO issues are often related to cached session data, cookies, or browser artifacts. The fact that the user can access the company portal but not one specific SaaS tool suggests a session or token problem. Using a private/incognito browsing window allows a clean session to be initiated, which often resolves SSO conflicts.

A. Reenrolling MFA is not related unless access issues stem from failed multifactor authentication.

C. Bypassing SSO may not be possible depending on the SaaS tool and company policies.

D. Factory resetting a device is a last resort and unnecessary in this case.

Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common software, application, and OS security issues.

Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting login and authentication issues, especially with SSO services.

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